Hi everyone. My father is an alzheimer's sufferer. He abruptly began getting much worse in early 2009 and has since lost his ability to do about everything since. He had an MRI on June 22, 2010 that I recently received a copy of, and I'm trying to decode the meaning. Can anyone offer any help on this? It says:
MRI BRAIN WITHOUT CONTRAST
CLINICAL STATEMENT: Cerebellar ataxia. Alzheimer's worsening symptoms.
COMPARISON: Prior MRI of the brain dated 3-18-05 is available for direct comparison.
Findings: The study is limited due to motion artifact throughout the examination. The craniocervical junction is grossly unremarkable without crowding or narrowing at the level of the toramen magnum. The corpus callosum is fully formed. The ventricles and sulci are diffusely prominent, consistent with generalized volume loss. Findings are not significantly changed. There are patchy and confluent areas of subcortical and periventricular T2 FLAIR signal hyperintensity noted involving the bilateral cerebral hemispheres, not significantly changed and typical of chronic small vessel ischemic related changes. Bilateral basal ganglia chronic lucanar intarctions are also present. There is no restricted diffusion to suggest acute ischemia. There are scattered areas of blooming artifact about the bilateral basal ganglia lacunes, consistent with chronic mineralization. The visualized paranasal sinuses and mastoid air cells are aerated.