Welcome to the forum. I'll try to help.
My first, knee-jerk response is strictly from the title you chose. "Vaginal juice / Sex toy / Risk of Exposure?" suggest you don't really understand safe sex. Without a bare penis inside a partner's vagina or rectum (or maybe mouth, but only very rarely) there is no risk of sexual transmission of HIV. That's all you have to know. The virus has never been known to be transmitted by less direct exposure to sexual secretions. So my guess is that you really haven't had an exposure to worry about and need not consider PEP with anti-HIV drugs.
Now I have read the qeustion itself. Guess what? You made a wise decision about avoiding insertive sex. And it also sounds unlikely your partner had HIV anyway. Most sex workers don't lie about HIV status when asked directly. But even if she did, the chance of transmission through sex toys or other indirect contact with secretions is very low, probably zero. (Even with entirely unprotected vaginal sex for several minues, the average female to male transmission risk -- if the female has HIV -- averages once for ever 2,000 exposures. Given that, what could the chance possibly be with such minor exposure to secretions?)
For those reasons, the chance you caught HIV is zero for all practical purposes. The biological reasons (e.g. how quickly HIV is inactivating outside the body by drying etc) really don't matter. The important fact is that HIV has never been known to be transmitted by the sorts of events you describe, and you're certainly not going to be the first! You not only should not seek PEP, you don't even need HIV testing (unless, or course, you need a negative test for additional reassurance beyond my words).
I hope this has helped. Best wishes-- HHH, MD
2) With or without symptoms, at 10 days probably only 20% of newly infected people would have positive antibody tests. Don't waste your money.
1,3) This isn't an ARS symptom; and no, it is exceedingly unlikely that ARS would cause only a single symptom of any kind.
The odds of a "coincidence", i.e. that you have a garden variety muscle spasm or something similar that just happened to come on a few days after a sexual incident, is thousands of times higher than the chance that the two events are related. Ignore any and all health symptoms you have in the next 4 weeks and rely on testing -- if you do anything at all. Personally I wouldn't feel a need to be tested and would continue unprotected sex with my wife without worry I could infect her with anything from the event you have described.
That will end this thread. There is nothing you can add that would change my opinion or advice. Take care and stay safe.
Doctor,
As of yesterday (9 days after my incident with sex toy and vaginal secretion risk), I began having intense pains in the side of the neck and back of the head. No other symptoms except possible very mild fever but I took my temperature and nothing above say 99 F (37.5 C). Sore throat: not really (though for months I have post nasal drip due to allergies and have mild sore throats from time to time), no rash.
1.Might this be a symptom of ARS (pain in lymph nodes of back of head and side of neck)? Understood the exposure I had seemed virtually no risk, there still was some theoritical risk?
2. How soon after ARS would an antibody test be reliable? 10 days assuming this is ARS (even if unlikely)?
3. Do all the ARS symptoms generally cluster on the same time and there is more than just 1 symptom, ie, highly rare to have only 1 symptom?
Many thanks,
ET
Lots of deadly variables. Thank-you for all your service work on this forum - best HIV forum on the Internet!
Excellent question. The average of 1 in 2,000 is just that, an average. There are some sexual exposures where the risk is much higher, maybe even as high as 1 in 100 -- e.g. if the viral load is high, the infected person only recently acquired HIV, other STDs are present, and others. Those circumstances are much more common in sub-Saharan Africa than in most industrialized countries. Probably I should be more careful in clarifying that the 1 in 2,000 average is for North America and Europe, but not necessarily in AIDS-endemic areas like tropical Africa.
Doctor just one follow-up question on your 1 in 2000 statistics. How with such low odds of acquiring do countries like South Africa or Swaziland end up with 25% adult prevalence?
I suppose it is some complex average logorythm but I guess that would mean on average a male would must have unprotected vaginal sex in the 100s of times before infected. Would you concur?
Thank-you Doctor. For the rapid and detailed response which conclusively addresses my concernts.
Just my surge of perhaps paranoia in this age of AIDS.