This is a repetitive question. If your wife's pneumonia was related to HIV, the test would have been positive. No change in my assessment or advice. EWH
Whilst at the Hospital (in greece) they completed an HIV test (at my request) for my wife. This was six weeks after i had engaged with her. Despite the symptoms being very similar to lympathic type Pnuemonia as a result of HIV can i take this test as being conclusive.
I am unsure what type of test was conducted (it was in greek) but i did see ag/ab with two values stating non reactive. Would this indicate she had a Combo test?
No more follow ups from me after this one.....Thanks
Tahnks Doc. I appreciate the response...was just concerned her pneunomia was attributed to a recently acquired HIV infection as they are struggling to work out why/where the pneumonia came from. My anxiety is through the roof due to my incident of poor judgement and I get sick thinking that my stupity could have made my wife extremely ill!!!
I have read numerous posts re mutual being no risk was just extremely concerned with my wifes current symptoms aligning Very closely to that of HIV and thought/think that it could be due to events I described above.
Welcome back to the Forum. Your situation is not unique and in fact, not only does it resemble other posts that you could refer to but it also is quite similar to your own post about two years ago. You have engaged in no risk activities in which you may have been exposed to a partner's genital secretions or saliva during masturbation - these are no risk activities and that you had a penile abrasion or a mouth ulcer does not change that this was a no risk event. Then after sex with your wife, you focused on her and are attributing her coincidental illness to your indiscretion. This is a coincidence, not a causal event. there is no reason for concern and no reason for even testing. You should anxiety drive you to test, I am confident that the test will be negative.
Take care. EWH