If your risk was oral then no risk.
If you had unprotected vaginal or anal sex then risk and take an HIV test.
Your above tests are useless.
Oh, thats what I wanted to know !
I mean, if I were positive, after 4 years, they shouldn't be that normal, or would be very improbable that my cd4/cd8 raised instead of declining.
Ty very much!
...put it this way, if your cd4/cd8 levels were low and raised 4 year's later both in the range of being normal, without any medication, it has nothing to do with HIV. Your levels are normal!
Oral sex is a no HIV risk activity, with wound or not, with condom or not, with the partner being HIV positive or not. No risk means no test.
No oral sex is considered safe sex, even with a sore in your mouth. There are no actual cases that have been proven to be the cause of HIV infection. You really do not need to worry, you did not get HIV from oral sex, and you never will by giving or recieving
Thank you very much for your answers folks.
I am asking those things, because I've been crazy about this for over a year, and I'm too scared to take HIV test.
For what I read, if you are HIV positive, your CD4/CD8 will drop from year to year, and it can't raise without meds.. isn't it right ?
Normal levels are 500-1500, so yes!
What are you saying? Oral sex is considered a risk activity , isn't it? What if I had and open sore in my mouth? Her vaginal fluids could infect me, couldn't it?
You don't think my cd4/cd8 is at normal levels ?
You never had a risk for HIV. Oral sex is safe sex. Talk with your doctor about your cd4/cd8, you do not get HIV from oral sex
But, looking at my results, doesn't it looks improbable that I have HIV ?
My risk situation is that I made oral sex in a sex worker. I am really paranoid right now, and too afraid to take an HIV test.
Shouldn't the cd4/cd8 be inverted by now ? Isnt it quite impossible to improve if I were positive ?
No it doesn't mean a thing when you need an HIV test. Go get an HIV antibody test.
Only test that diagnosis HIV is a HIV antibody test. Simple as that.
What you mean by improper test?
My doctor asked it, I dont know why.
The thing is, isn't it improbable that after more than 4 years the cd4/cd8 hasn't inverted, and the cd4 levels grown ?
Also, the cd4 % raised from 37% to 37.7% and the cd8 % decayed from 32.2% to 29.2%.
Dosn't that mean nothing at all ?
No you can't take it as conclusive and it was the improper test to begin with.
No what ? I can't take this as conclusive, or I don't need further testing ?