Feel regretted, please advise.

[thisisit2010]

I am in the UK, male, uncircumsized. On 10 July, I went to a brothel found on the internet and ended up with some affairs with a caucasian CSW from Italy. According to their website and the CSW, she had just been doing this for two weeks. Because I actually pretty worry about STDs, I asked the CSW if she would do oral without or French kissing in order to kind of assess the risk of having sex with her and she said she would not do. Maybe it is good sign.

Before I erected, she put a condom on me and gave me some oral sex and handjob to help me to erect. I was pretty upset of what I was doing, so I just got semi-erected and then we did some virginal sex with the same condom. The whole intercourse lasted only 2,3 min. After I came in her, I pulled out my penis and the semen was in the condom. I didn't check the condom because at that time I just wanted to finish this unenjoyable experirence as quick as possible.

Here are my questions;
1.What is your estimation of the odds of this particular CSW having HIV and the risk of the whole exposure?
2.Because the CSW performed Oral, handjob, and virginal sex with the same condom, I worried that all of these might reduce the reliability of the condom and resulted in some minor breakages of the condom. Has this kind of minor breakage ever been reported by any research?
3.Do you think I should get tested before I have sex with my wife? Will I put her under any risk if I don't get tested (This is my only encounter outside our monogamy relationship)?
4.Just curious, I have read quite a lot threads in this forum.It seems both of you are confident that masturbating with the partner's genital secretion will not lead to HIV infection. Then what is the key difference between masturbation and insertive sex?  

I understand the overall risk is low but I love my wife and don't want to put her under any risk so I do need reassurance from experts like you. Please do not delete my post. Thank you very much for your help.      

[thisisit2010]

Thank you very much for the reassurance.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Correct. If your condom had failed, you would know it.  EWH

[thisisit2010]

Thank you for the promoted answer. I do notice that using one condom for multi actions will lead to higher failure rate and that's actually how my concern of this encounter started. If I understand it correctly, you don't think it is possible that my condom failed and thus I have no risk.

[Edward W Hook, MD]

Welcome to the Forum.  Condom protected sex is safe sex. There is not risk to you form this exposure and no reason for you to worry. In fact, there is no reason for you to even have testing related to the exposures you describe.  In answer to your specific questions:

1.  Most commercial sex workers do not have HIV or, for that matter STDs.  In your case, your exposures were condom protected and condoms are highly effective at preventing STD/HIV transmission and make your exposure zero risk.  

2.  The condom did not break, thus your exposure was protected.  When condoms fail they break wide open.  Your condom did not, therefore you can be confident that it worked.  Condoms do not leak just a little.  Also, for your information, I should point out that you may have been lucky.  Using condoms for more than one sex act increases the risk that they will fail.  Please use each condom only once in the future.

3.  You do not need testing and your wife is not at risk from the condom protected activities you describe.

4.  Different epithelial/mucosal surfaces are exposed with intercourse in comparison to masturbation.  this is the reason for the difference in transmission.

I hope these comments are helpful. You do not need to worry.  EWH

[Ur_overreacting]

You had safe sex. The odds she had HIV are very low on top of that. There's no need for testing. In regards to HIV, you need not worry about this event. Move on and stay out of those places from now on ;-)