Hi, I'm sure this has been answered before; but I'm curious on the subject. I recently briefly fingered a female friend of mine, and did not realize I had what appears to be an extremely small papercut on my middle finger and no "open skin", I at no time saw blood, however she said it had been a while for her (as in anything penetrating her vagina) and she might have bled. Wouldn't for any such remote risk, my finger would have to be more along the lines of a bleeding WOUND, then a suspect old papercut? I also should note, I quickly wiped my hands, then washed my hands afterward.
The area somewhat stings, so I'm concerned fluid entered the papercut, but it appears theres a very small scab there and no open cut/whatsoever. Obviously for it to have a scab, it obviously went through the healing process meaning that the papercut most likely happened long before the fingering right? In your vast years of experience, have you ever heard of such a route of transmission? Isn't a finger, lacking the necessary cells that a mucous membrane for example, has?
I should let it be known, I suffer from OCD disorder, but have it under controlled therapy. Testing for me is not something that will help my condition, as I've experienced over-testing before. But it helps to have a knowledgeable opinion on the matter, and I appreciate it.