First, let me say thanks for a wonderful forum! Its great to have access to honest, trained medical professionals that are truly helping people out in a judgement free way.
I am a young gay male and hooked with another male -- all safe sex (kissing, fingering, handjobs), but have a question regarding one act: the other guy came, then used some of his semen to finish me off (about 15 seconds). I assume there is a theoretical risk there -- since his semen could get into the tip of my penis. But, how does that exposure differ from a straight male having unprotected sex with a woman? (wouldn't her fluid enter the same way, through the tip of the penis?).
In my mind, I figure this to be pretty darn low risk, because:
1. he had to have hiv (I stupidly didn't ask, so lesson learned there)
2. a significant amount of semen would have to get inside the penis
3. I had no cuts, scapes, etc.
I just wanted your insight. I'm young and learning to be as safe as possible. Thanks for helping!