Your risk is very, very low. Risk factors for acquisition of HIV are studied one-by-one and there is not an easy way to effectively combine all such factors for any one person. Scientific studies have shown that, IF EXPOSED TO AN INFECTED PARTNER, the presence of genital herpes increases risk for HIV acquisition by about 3-fold. In your case, the following must be considered:
1. Odds are the CSW did not have HIV. Most do not.
2. Condom protected genital sex is safe sex, thus close to zero risk.
3. Oral sex is very, very low risk. On this site we use the figure of a 1 in 10,000 chance of infection if exposed but some experts think it is much low than that. No matter how you look at it, receipt of oral sex is very low risk.
4. No one's condoms cover their scrotum yet they protect from HIV. Your scrotal concerns are really not a concern in this consideration. The scrotum is not typically thought of as a site for HIV acquisition.
Putting all of these considerations together, your risk of infection from the exposure you describe is very, very low risk. If you get tested at 6 weeks following your exposure, the test would detect over 95% of infections acquired 6 weeks before. At that time, a negative test (which is what I can confidently say your result will be) effectively guarantees that you do not have HIV.
Hope this helps. EWH
No, the condom would not discolor the wahcloth. EWH
I realize I may be slipping into complete paranoia here.
But this morning I was washing clothes, and noticed the washcloth used was stained kind of bluish-green all over. Could this be from the condom? (Trojan Lubricated with Spermicide)?
Nope, not even in the same league. Remember, about 20-25% of Americans have gential herpes even tholugh most of them do not know it. EWH
Thanks for the quick response.
When you say a 3-fold increase-I'm just trying to put my head around that number-does that mean you rise to the level of a high-risk group, such as IV drug users or MSM?
Thanks again.