Welcome to our Forum.. I will be glad to comment. Both of the events that you describe are very low and probably effectively no risk for acquisition of HIV. I would urge you in the future to ask you partners if they have HIV- most people tell the truth and the information is helpful. From a statistical point however, it is unlikely that your partner had HIV- most people, including men who have sex with other men, do not have HIV.
As far as the exposures are concerned, HIV is not transmitted by transfer of genital secretions from person to person by transfer from the genitals to the hands and then on to another person. It is usual for secretions to be passed from person to person in the course of mutual masturbation, yet there are no instances in which HIV has been documented to have been transmitted in this way.
Oral sex is very low risk for HIV. IF your partner had HIV, your risk for infection, is no greater than 1 in 10,000 and perhaps lower. Some experts say there is no risk from performance of oral sex on an infected partner but there do appear to be a few instances in which this has occurred. Logically, since he did not ejaculate, this should reduce the risk further although there are no studies to inform us on this.
thus, in summary, your risk for infection form these events is quite low. I would not worry and do not feel strongly about the need to test for HIV related to the exposures you describe. Your risk, if there is any risk at all, is close to zero.
I hope these comments are helpful. EWH
As i said above, I see no need for testing. If you wish to test, testing with the HIV PCR and antibody test at 4, not 2 weeks would be conclusive. EWH
Thank you for your reply!
Do you recommend that I do a HIV antibodies and HIV RNA combined test two weeks after my sexual behavior?