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Avatar universal

Confused!!!!

Dear Dr Hook

this is my first post on the forum and have read many posts and got myself educated on HIV and its ways of transmission. I have read throughout that NO PENETRATION = NO RISK, FROTTAGE NO RISK, PENETRATION OCCURS INSIDE THE BODY, HIV virus cannot live outside its host, GENITAL TO GENITAL FLUID CONTACT WITHOUT PENETRATION IS NO RISK, then why was it advised in the BELOW POST by you

http://www.medhelp.org/posts/HIV-Prevention/Without-penetration/show/864324

to the poster that he should go get tested and that the NEED for a test CANNOT be challenged when he clearly mentioned in his title - WITHOUT PENETRATION, also you mentioned that what he did was very close to penetration and you further suggested the poster to get tested for bacterial STDs & HIV.

Question is if No Penetration = No Risk why would you advise him to go get tested in the first place? Did you suggest only so that the Poster gets a peace of mind or WAS THERE A RISK in the ENCOUNTER HE DESCRIBED.

With due respect to you DR Hook, please clarify!!!

2 Responses
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Avatar universal
Thank you for the Clarification Dr Hook

So can one conclude that the exposure in the post can be categorised as  "Frottage" or "Mutual Masturbation"  and hence without penetration there was no risk?

also dr hook your reply to the post was over 2 years ago, have there been definitive evidences since then about frottage, genital to genital contact and fluid contact without penetration being NO Risk?
Helpful - 0
300980 tn?1194929400
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Our answers to clients are individualized.  The answer you quote from over 4 months ago was for a client whose exposure, despite the title of his post, was close to intercourse. I would pay close attention in the post you quote to the fact that I emphasized that there was virtually no risk of infection related to the exposure.  Consider it a moment of weakness on my part as I wrote the reply.  Please do not worry. EWH
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