Aa
stressed a bit
Hello doctors.
I had protected vaginal intercourse with a white female, no drug user, hetro. She spooked me as she didn't seem to want to use a condom. I have only known her for a few weeks before the incident. What I am now paranoid about now are two things. 1- I can't totally recall removing the condom, but I know that I asked her if she wanted me to so I could ejaculate on her breast area (can't recall if there was a slippage), but I think it was on the entire time. Also, I know I checked it for breaks using water (like filling it up afterwards) & it was intact. 2 - At 21 days past the incident, I ran a mild fever (99.1 to 100.1) for a week (maybe stress?)
I then started to notice this fever at 21 days past, which I checked many times throughout the day. No sore throat, rashes, etc, maybe a little soreness in my groin area from time to time. The were a couple of sites that said the average ARS time was 21 days (so that got me panicked).
so, q1 - even though this was protected, was this fever grade and time in line with true ARS?
q2 - At week 3 and 4 (this past thur.), I tested using an ABS (only, no duo) and it was NEG. The fever came the preceding Sat. If by chance, this was ars, would the ABS show up by my thur test? No fever after I got my results.
Can stress cause mild fever?
q3 - I read on here last night that my odds were low (1 in a mill?) and a NEG ABS result at 4 weeks showed 90% accuracy. So would that make my stats somewhere around 1 in 10mill?
q4 - If I were your local patient would you recommend me testing further? I am super paranoid on false-pos, as the International forum recently had a poster claiming he had one.
Thanks
I had protected vaginal intercourse with a white female, no drug user, hetro. She spooked me as she didn't seem to want to use a condom. I have only known her for a few weeks before the incident. What I am now paranoid about now are two things. 1- I can't totally recall removing the condom, but I know that I asked her if she wanted me to so I could ejaculate on her breast area (can't recall if there was a slippage), but I think it was on the entire time. Also, I know I checked it for breaks using water (like filling it up afterwards) & it was intact. 2 - At 21 days past the incident, I ran a mild fever (99.1 to 100.1) for a week (maybe stress?)
I then started to notice this fever at 21 days past, which I checked many times throughout the day. No sore throat, rashes, etc, maybe a little soreness in my groin area from time to time. The were a couple of sites that said the average ARS time was 21 days (so that got me panicked).
so, q1 - even though this was protected, was this fever grade and time in line with true ARS?
q2 - At week 3 and 4 (this past thur.), I tested using an ABS (only, no duo) and it was NEG. The fever came the preceding Sat. If by chance, this was ars, would the ABS show up by my thur test? No fever after I got my results.
Can stress cause mild fever?
q3 - I read on here last night that my odds were low (1 in a mill?) and a NEG ABS result at 4 weeks showed 90% accuracy. So would that make my stats somewhere around 1 in 10mill?
q4 - If I were your local patient would you recommend me testing further? I am super paranoid on false-pos, as the International forum recently had a poster claiming he had one.
Thanks
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
See above.
MEDICAL PROFESSIONAL
Welcome to the forum.
First, it is statistically unlikely yor partner has HIV. Second, you had condom-protected sex, so even if she has HIV, you were at little or no risk. Third, your symptoms are not typical for a new HIV infection, either in their nature or their timing following the sexual exposure. Fourth, in response to your follow-up comment below, oral sex carries little or no risk for HIV; the virus has never been known to be transmitted by cunnilingus (oral contact with female genitals). Fifth, as you already understand, a negative HIV antibody test is at least 90% reliable.
From a strict risk assessment standpoint, and on the basis of your symptoms, you didn't need HIV testing and need not be tested again. However, most people in your situation should be tested at 6+ weeks; the negative result probably will be more reassuring than my words. Or you could have a duo (i.e. "combo", "4th generation") test for both HIV antibody and p24 antigen, which can be done at any time; it is 100% reliable 4 weeks or more after exposure. It rarely if ever gives false positive results; that's not a reason to avoid testing.
In the meantime, stay mellow. It is exceedingly unlikely you have HIV; if you have additional testing, you can expect the result to remain negative.
Regards-- HHH, MD
First, it is statistically unlikely yor partner has HIV. Second, you had condom-protected sex, so even if she has HIV, you were at little or no risk. Third, your symptoms are not typical for a new HIV infection, either in their nature or their timing following the sexual exposure. Fourth, in response to your follow-up comment below, oral sex carries little or no risk for HIV; the virus has never been known to be transmitted by cunnilingus (oral contact with female genitals). Fifth, as you already understand, a negative HIV antibody test is at least 90% reliable.
From a strict risk assessment standpoint, and on the basis of your symptoms, you didn't need HIV testing and need not be tested again. However, most people in your situation should be tested at 6+ weeks; the negative result probably will be more reassuring than my words. Or you could have a duo (i.e. "combo", "4th generation") test for both HIV antibody and p24 antigen, which can be done at any time; it is 100% reliable 4 weeks or more after exposure. It rarely if ever gives false positive results; that's not a reason to avoid testing.
In the meantime, stay mellow. It is exceedingly unlikely you have HIV; if you have additional testing, you can expect the result to remain negative.
Regards-- HHH, MD
and btw, I did perform oral sex on her without any barrier. No oral sex from her to me though. Would that increase the chances?
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