Hello Dr. HHH or Dr. EWH:
My question is certainly not a very original one, and I have already reviewed many posts in the forum which are similar in nature, but I would still appreciate your guidance and medical advice regarding my particular case.
Facts:
I had two unprotected vaginal exposures with a CSW. Each exposure was approximately 10 minutes in duration. After each instance, I immediately cleaned myself thoroughly in the shower and urinated (although seemingly no statistical evidence this makes any difference).
The CSW was 19 years old and told she had been working as a CSW on weekends for past 6 months. She told me she always uses condoms with all clients (although I’m doubtful as she did not use a condom with me) and the only person she had unprotected sex with was her ex-bf (6 mo. earlier). Nonetheless, she did tell me when asked that she was checked for HIV for the first time 3 months ago, negative. When I kept asking, she got annoyed and re-affirmed her negative status, even saying "if you want, we can go get tested tomorrow."
My review of the forum leads me to estimate my real risk, assuming she was HIV+, would be .001*2=.002, or 1/500. In Colombia, HIV prevalence in CSW is around 1%, likely much less in my case; still, let's assume 1% for the sake of argument. So my math is .01*.002=.00002, or 1/50,000.
1) Would you agree my calcs?
2) Would you agree this was a low-risk event (obviously not no-risk)? And so I also assume that you wouldn’t consider PEP in this case?
3) Have you, professionally, ever encountered a patient who contracted HIV from a similar scenario with a single CSW?
4) I test once annually, last tested this year in February- all neg; would you recommend me testing in 6 weeks for this particular event, or just getting my regular annual HIV test next February?
5) In absence of symptoms, would you suggest testing for other STDs following this experience?
6) Should I realistically be worried or move on?
Thanks in advance.