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Standard protocol for occluded artery

My 90 year old mother has been feeling chest discomfort and shortness of breath with minimal exertion. A recent stress test and angiogram revealed ischemia and a completely occluded artery, with evidence of collateral vessel development. She also has two leaking heart valves. Her cardiologist told us that he will not operate on one blocked artery (hers was a branch of the circumflex), and did not think it was appropriate to stent that artery either. We are wondering if that's standard practice under these circumstances or should we get a second opinion?
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367994 tn?1304953593
I agree with vienna that age is a factor to consider and treat accordingly, but with age aside the completely occluded artery has collateral vessel development (natural by-pass) and not warrant surgery.  A stent may not be physically possble due to location and/or angle of lesion and degree blockage. I have a completely blocked LAD with collateral vessels, dx'd 4 years ago and also valve leakages.  Medication serves me well.

The proper medication regimen is to dilate vessels that reduces the heart''s workload can/will decrease shortness of breath, and a nitrate that quickly (or slow acting) and specifically targets the coronary arteries can/will dilate those vessel and relieve chest pain (angina).
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Avatar universal
She is 90 years old. In my understanding 90  is old for that operation. but I am not a doctor. Give her love, good companion and good diet. Also you should ask that question on the expert Forum. My best.
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