The whole monogamous vs. "other" was puzzling to me, too. I mean, it sounds like a morality-based barometer of some kind. Us: Together 20 years, hepC for most of them, diagnosed for nine of them. Sure, we're monogamous and all, but...once upon a time sort of a Tommy Lee- Pammy Anderson thingy. (And he gave it to her via a shared-needle wedding band tattoo, she claims.) Anyway, I've got hepC and she does not. Like Oodin stated, perhaps there is something else coloring her feelings. I've offered condoms, but not well received. And "alternatives" are fine with me. The point is that I've never rejected any option out of hand (more unfortunate wording). This issue even influences my decision re Tx. (That's why I bristled at the implications that I'm inconsiderate of her feelings about this.) She requested I post the question. I'm beginning to think she was hoping for something to further quash my position on the matter. I believe she's still happy in the relationship, But again, those are separate issues. Thanks to all.
You guys crack me up!!
That whole 6% per incidence arguement is what my PCP uses with me. Making it a pretty sure thing that my hubby would be positive after 23 years of marriage. She drives me nuts with it.
The sex part stops when they are married but the rough is only just starting.
That's been my experience
Thanks Jim, it all makes since to me now.
The chances of having rough sex drops 94% for monogamous couples, thus leaving the 6%.
I think it might have something to do with more incidences of STDs with non-monagamous couples. Less STDs translate into less chance of virus penetrating tissues, i.e. less sores, etc. Also, don't people stop having "rough sex" by the time they are married :)