I think you're overplaying the comment a bit. He is a doctor and not a mathematician or statistician. He was providing an approximate opinion based on his collective knowledge. There is no specific study I am aware of that concludes with this figure. Unfortunately there are a wide range of interpretations and a wide range of possible transmission probabilities.
Maybe so but this doc is a recognized expert in the field so I'm sure there is a solid basis to his data....life360, have u a view by any chance or is there anyone else that understands the 1 in 10,000 figure he quoted? I would just like to understand where he got this figure from or arrived at this tranmission rate...
Someone surely can explain?
I agree the 1 in 10,000 is not quite replicated in the maths I have seen people put forward on this and similar websites.
I think you are referring to the female to male transmission between a couple with full knowledge of the condition over a year of sex.
An estimate is therefore 4% divided by 100 sexual episodes in a year, but maybe a few less as we are talking longer term couples in that study. If we do this then it is a 0.04% chance per episode or 1 in 2,500. This is not quite right I believe as the sexual episodes happen one after the other and it takes just once to be infected, but this maths is close enough.
One issue I am interested in is the statistic that says 70% of transmissions occur during asymptomatic shedding. I am not sure how this is known, given supposedly 80% of people with the infection suggest they are not aware of it. For these careful couples in the studies that lead to a 1 in 2,500 chance of transmission I wonder how many of those are during unknown or unrecognized outbreaks.