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Can someone explain this stat for hsv2 transmission please?

Came across this in the experts forum by Dr. Edward W Hook:

"Most exposures to infected partners do not lead to infection.  Less than 1 in 10,000 exposures lead to infection when the partner is asymptomatic"

How does this align with the long running 1500 couple study that showed a 96% non transmission rate by doing nothing and just avoiding sex while an outbreak is present. Also the valtrex efficacy study that showed another 50% reduction in tranmission rate bringing it to 98% and with condoms to 99%. There is also the 6 month study on women that showed that while on anti suppressive there only had detectable symptomless viral shedding on .4% of days which is very low....

Is it because these studies were annual transmission rates assuming sex twice a week versus a one off exposure? How does this equate with the 1 in 10,000 chance of tranmission quoted by the expert?

Thanks

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Avatar universal
I think you're overplaying the comment a bit. He is a doctor and not a mathematician or statistician. He was providing an approximate opinion based on his collective knowledge. There is no specific study I am aware of that concludes with this figure. Unfortunately there are a wide range of interpretations and a wide range of possible transmission probabilities.
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Avatar universal
Maybe so but this doc is a recognized expert in the field so I'm sure there is a solid basis to his data....life360, have u  a view by any chance or is there anyone else that understands the 1 in 10,000 figure he quoted? I would just like to understand where he got this figure from or arrived at this tranmission rate...

Someone surely can explain?
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Avatar universal
I agree the 1 in 10,000 is not quite replicated in the maths I have seen people put forward on this and similar websites.

I think you are referring to the female to male transmission between a couple with full knowledge of the condition over a year of sex.

An estimate is therefore 4% divided by 100 sexual episodes in a year, but maybe a few less as we are talking longer term couples in that study. If we do this then it is a 0.04% chance per episode or 1 in 2,500. This is not quite right I believe as the sexual episodes happen one after the other and it takes just once to be infected, but this maths is close enough.

One issue I am interested in is the statistic that says 70% of transmissions occur during asymptomatic shedding. I am not sure how this is known, given supposedly 80% of people with the infection suggest they are not aware of it. For these careful couples in the studies that lead to a 1 in 2,500 chance of transmission I wonder how many of those are during unknown or unrecognized outbreaks.
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