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Confusing symptoms - advice needed
Hello,
Firstly, thanks to those who are offering advice and input on this forum.
I'm a 43 year old male, no prior STD history. In good health overall with a long history of being safe with sex.
About 6 days ago I had what amounted to single sexual encounter with a female whom I'd met a day before. We used condoms, and both communicated that we each had no std's. However, a condom tore, and about half of this encounter was unsafe.
Literally about 36 hours later I had general mild burning and redness in the groin, mostly the entire scrotum. Not much itching to speak of, but some very mild fatigue. Some mild discomfort at tip of penis which remains. To this point I've noticed no "lesions" or any rash to speak of. I bought some Monistat 7 yesterday and the mild burning and redness around the scrotum was greatly relieved- almost entirely and overnight.
Some background also is that I'd been experiencing some occasional intestinal duress, bloating & gas, occasional fatigue over the last month before this encounter. I drink a lot of beer, and considered I may have some candida issues. I'm also frequented by bad allergies this time of year as well. So, on suspicion that I might have already been having some candida build-up or allergic issues, I suspected I could have, in addition, contracted a yeast infection from this woman, or herpes. For the last 2 days I've been on what amounts to a "candida diet" (no alcohol, caffeine, starches, etc...,). Today I experienced a brief fever, general malaise, and some headaches; the fever being what has concerned me most. Perhaps it may be withdrawal from caffeine and succumbing to some allergies and/or a fungal infection; perhaps candida die-off.
In essence, I plan to get tested for std's, regardless. For HSV-2 I understand that if I have no lesions I may need to wait 2-3 months, which is fine. I'm just going to wait and see what happens next, but I'm wondering if it would be advised to see a doctor now, and/or how to approach my situation. This has been profoundly stressful, to put it mildly, which probably isn't helping matters.
1. Is my situation suggestive of herpes or some other std?
2. Is the likelihood of herpes low or high, given these parameters and the fact it was a single encounter?
3. Given that monostat 7 greatly helped some of the inflammation and redness, I assume this suggests something other than herpes but I'm not ruling anything out. Thoughts?
4. Are yeast infections in men frequently mistook for herpes?
5. When is the soonest I can get checked out for std's with accuracy?
Thank You for your time and compassion.
Firstly, thanks to those who are offering advice and input on this forum.
I'm a 43 year old male, no prior STD history. In good health overall with a long history of being safe with sex.
About 6 days ago I had what amounted to single sexual encounter with a female whom I'd met a day before. We used condoms, and both communicated that we each had no std's. However, a condom tore, and about half of this encounter was unsafe.
Literally about 36 hours later I had general mild burning and redness in the groin, mostly the entire scrotum. Not much itching to speak of, but some very mild fatigue. Some mild discomfort at tip of penis which remains. To this point I've noticed no "lesions" or any rash to speak of. I bought some Monistat 7 yesterday and the mild burning and redness around the scrotum was greatly relieved- almost entirely and overnight.
Some background also is that I'd been experiencing some occasional intestinal duress, bloating & gas, occasional fatigue over the last month before this encounter. I drink a lot of beer, and considered I may have some candida issues. I'm also frequented by bad allergies this time of year as well. So, on suspicion that I might have already been having some candida build-up or allergic issues, I suspected I could have, in addition, contracted a yeast infection from this woman, or herpes. For the last 2 days I've been on what amounts to a "candida diet" (no alcohol, caffeine, starches, etc...,). Today I experienced a brief fever, general malaise, and some headaches; the fever being what has concerned me most. Perhaps it may be withdrawal from caffeine and succumbing to some allergies and/or a fungal infection; perhaps candida die-off.
In essence, I plan to get tested for std's, regardless. For HSV-2 I understand that if I have no lesions I may need to wait 2-3 months, which is fine. I'm just going to wait and see what happens next, but I'm wondering if it would be advised to see a doctor now, and/or how to approach my situation. This has been profoundly stressful, to put it mildly, which probably isn't helping matters.
1. Is my situation suggestive of herpes or some other std?
2. Is the likelihood of herpes low or high, given these parameters and the fact it was a single encounter?
3. Given that monostat 7 greatly helped some of the inflammation and redness, I assume this suggests something other than herpes but I'm not ruling anything out. Thoughts?
4. Are yeast infections in men frequently mistook for herpes?
5. When is the soonest I can get checked out for std's with accuracy?
Thank You for your time and compassion.
In the hopes this information may be helpful to all who might read this thread, I can offer the following update:
Over the weekend I was prescribed Diflucan for possible fungal/yeast condition. I experienced a very significant reduction in symptoms within 24 hours and continue to feel better. I was also offered a prescription of antibiotics, which I declined after the helpful advice on this forum which was that I don't want to confuse things at the moment or make a yeast infection worse. So, Diflucan was step one and it has made a *huge* difference. Step two is monitor any changes or symptoms which might remain, and be sure I receive accurate sti test results:
My urine was also sent off to a lab for sti tests, however, if negative I still plan to get routine testing done in several weeks to ensure more accurate results.
Thanks
Over the weekend I was prescribed Diflucan for possible fungal/yeast condition. I experienced a very significant reduction in symptoms within 24 hours and continue to feel better. I was also offered a prescription of antibiotics, which I declined after the helpful advice on this forum which was that I don't want to confuse things at the moment or make a yeast infection worse. So, Diflucan was step one and it has made a *huge* difference. Step two is monitor any changes or symptoms which might remain, and be sure I receive accurate sti test results:
My urine was also sent off to a lab for sti tests, however, if negative I still plan to get routine testing done in several weeks to ensure more accurate results.
Thanks
Hi, ill add this:
1. fever and body aches would be a symptom of a primary infection but that in itself would only suggest possible exposure where testing at the 3 months mark would be conclusive. If a sore in the genital area occurs from 3 to 13 days, that would add further evidence of possible infection and a swab would be needed within 48 hours to confirm as a blood test does not say where if its positive.
2. Using a condom reduces the risk but not all together but if she did not have any vaginal sores at the time the risk would be low and with the condom breaking would increase but even with this, contracting it from a short one time affair would be quite low.
3. if the cream helped then it may be fungal. Also getting a first time outbreak in that area is really not possible as it did not make skin contact with her vaginal area as that contact needs to take place to acquire it.
4.no
5. 8 weeks would be an indicator but 3 months conclusive.
1. fever and body aches would be a symptom of a primary infection but that in itself would only suggest possible exposure where testing at the 3 months mark would be conclusive. If a sore in the genital area occurs from 3 to 13 days, that would add further evidence of possible infection and a swab would be needed within 48 hours to confirm as a blood test does not say where if its positive.
2. Using a condom reduces the risk but not all together but if she did not have any vaginal sores at the time the risk would be low and with the condom breaking would increase but even with this, contracting it from a short one time affair would be quite low.
3. if the cream helped then it may be fungal. Also getting a first time outbreak in that area is really not possible as it did not make skin contact with her vaginal area as that contact needs to take place to acquire it.
4.no
5. 8 weeks would be an indicator but 3 months conclusive.
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You are reading content posted in the Herpes Community
Herpes spreads by oral, vaginal and anal sex.
Herpes sores blister, then burst, scab and heal.
STIs are the most common cause of genital sores.
Millions of people are diagnosed with STDs in the U.S. each year.
STDs can't be transmitted by casual contact, like hugging or touching.
Syphilis is an STD that is transmitted by oral, genital and anal sex.
