I have been married for 6 1/2 years and have never been unfaithful to my wife outside our marriage. However prior to our marriage I had sexual relations with many of women. My wife was a virgin when we married and she has not been unfaithful as well. We have two children that are 3 1/2 and 1 1/2 who were both born vaginally and healthy. Outside of yesterday when she was told the news by an Igg test, including having two uneventful pregnancies and never being told she has genital herpes, neither of us has no indication or tests that we have herpes. She apparently has a genital lesion Trying to think back I am trying to remember ever having an outbreak and it is tough to say for certain. I can remember having various jock itch irritations or an occasional bump in my groin, but really nothing that significant to make me even think that was a possibilty. So my questions are, obviously I msut have given it to her, which I feel terible about, but could she really have her first onset after being married for 6 1/2 years and after having two children when it was not detected. Also, wouldnt her ob/gyn doctor have detected this during the previous pregnancy work ups. If she jsut contracted herpes now, how can she not have contracted it when she became pregnant. Wouldnt she have obtained the virus through getting pregnant? Could she have got pregnant from me, not contract the virus and have the two healthy children or is there something else going on