My ex tested positive for herpes but never showed any symptoms. After sleeping together for the first time, I developed around a dozen red bumps scattered around my penis and lower abdomen and inner thigh. I had been tested immediately before starting the relationship and tested neg (<.9 IGG) for HSV2. After her positive test result, we just assumed that my symptoms were caused by hsv2, and my PCP agreed, though the bumps/lesions healed before he was able to visually confirm or take a swab. (I also developed a rash composed of bug bit looking bumps ranging from my thighs to upper torso, which stopped about 2 months after my initial exposure)
All of this happened last Feb (~7 months ago). I began taking Valtrex in order to prevent any future outbreaks. I haven't had an outbreak since (except another red bump a week ago that took 4-5 days to heal). I've had what I assume are prodromal symptoms (burning sensations, slight itching). After the relationship ended in June(3 months ago), I continued to take Valtrex in case of future outbreaks. To put my mind at rest, I decided to get tested last week. I tested negative for HSV2 (0.10). It was an IGG test for both type 2 and type 1 (0.08 for HSV1),
-Could it be that I am one of the rare people that do not develop antibodies? I definitely remember getting red bumps 5 days after initial exposure and strep-throat like bumps on my tonsils about 2 weeks after initial exposure. My initial outbreak was mild from everything I've heard.
-Do people who do not develop antibodies tend to be symptomatic or asymptomatic?
-Could the Valtrex be the cause of my negative blood work?
-Would a Western Blot test be more conclusive?
Any advice would be greatly appreciated. This negative test result is confusing, and I'm starting to doubt that my symptoms are evidence of herpes; however, I'm afraid to get too excited and just be let down.
Thank you in advance