I am a male who has been in a relationship with the same woman for 13 years. She has a long history of getting cold sores. I cannot remember having a cold sore myself in the past ten years, but am fairly certain I have had a cold sore before.
On April 14th of this year, I received unprotected oral sex from a different female, her history unknown, and I didn't notice any cold sores on her mouth. 16 days later I was tested for HSV-1 and 2 and the IgG was negative for 2, but came up at 2.48 for HSV-1. My partner and I never are intimate when a cold sore is obvious, although I realize there is a chance for asymptomatic shedding. However, we have not had sex that frequently over the past 18 months.
Would the positive test indicate that I had HSV-1 prior to the encounter on the 14th? Or could that positive test be from that encounter (in this case, assuming I never had HSV-1 prior)?
Is it possible to transmit genital HSV-1 to someone who already has oral HSV-1?
Does a reading of 2.48 indicate whether this was more likely from a recent or past exposure?
About a week after the recent encounter on the 14th, I noticed a group of small white bumps on the shaft of my penis. I have experienced no other symptoms, and the bumps are still there, and do not have seemed to change at all. I haven't ever noticed these bumps before, but am admittedly more attentive to the area than in the past.