I posted last month when my daughter had an ob and I was questioning ways of transmission. She was on acyclovir for 10 days and this ob was much less severe than the initial one. This past week, approximately 2 weeks or so from the start of her last ob, her twin brother was running a fever and said his throat was scratchy. The fever started Tuesday and would go down or away after a dose of ibuprofen. By Friday, he was better and almost back to himself. He didn't have much of an appetitem, but I related that to the fever and him not feeling well overall.
Yesterday I noticed a red, irritated area under his right eye. It may have been there a day or two before that, but I can't be certain. I thought since he had been playing outside, maybe he had scratched it or something. It was also very reminiscent of his sister's outbreak area, but I really didn't think that he had been affected by the virus.
This morning I noticed the red area under his eye is more irritated and I'm almost certain that he's gotten the virus as well. When I compare the 2 incidents - she had a fever and a red irritated area and now he has it - they're almost identical and I'm pretty sure he has gotten it.
Here are my questions:
- she didn't have any open lesions during her last outbreak and I thought that the virus couldn't be spread without having contact with fluid from one of these lesions. Is that not how it works? If not, how can it be spread?
- can the virus be spread by drinking after someone who has the virus and has an outbreak even though there aren't any sores on/in/around the mouth?
- I don't understand the shedding part of the virus. Does this mean that even when there are no symptoms or an active outbreak, the virus can be spread?
We spent Christmas day with my family where there were other children (an infant, a 1 year old, another 5 year old and a 7 year old) and our daughter had been on the acyclovir for about 48 hours and had no open lesions. I'm very, very worried that she could have transmitted the virus to the other kids. I was watching her pretty closely and didn't see her rub her face on any of the other kids, no one licked her face and I don't think she had any prolonged direct contact with the 2 youngest children. I'm just really confused about transmission and am worried sick that she may have infected others.
Am I supposed to keep the kids out of school during an outbreak, even if there aren't any open lesions? Can it be transmitted without any open lesions? I just want to know the truth and I feel like I'm getting contradicting info. I'm very upset that this has happened and really don't want to infect anyone else. HELP!!