Hi everybody,
So... there is something I simply haven't been able to figure out and have not had a chance to talk to a doctor.
1, If I've never had an initial outbreak (I had brief flu-like symptoms for a few days but nothing more, no lesions, certainly nothing itchy, scabby that lasted several weeks) can I pass infect others? My partner's doctor said that before an initial outbreak the virus can't be transmitted, this seems to align with anecdotes from married couples who did not infect each other after decades of sex... but would love to get specific confirmation of this.
2, I understand there is asymptomatic viral shedding - usually in the week before / after an outbreak. With viral shedding there are NO visible symptoms but the virus is shedding and so it can be transmitted just the same as when there are lesions. However... the implication from the statistics, descriptions and anecdotal evidence, is that when there is NO outbreak and NO viral shedding, then there the virus can NOT be transmitted... is that true?
The statistics say that there is a 10% transmission rate if you don't take medication and don't use condoms, simply avoid sex during an outbreak. With condoms and suppressants, it drops to 2-4%. That's very low. However, it seems to me that this is still referring to the days when a transmission is possible due to asymptomatic shedding. The implication would be that when there is no shedding, then there is also no transmission possibility.
Would love to get a firm answer on these 2 questions.
Thanks!
Felix