My dad is 74 years old, and just had a spermacoloctomy from a 600cc cyst on his right testicle, and 3 days later developed a fever. I took him back to the urologist, and he admitted him to the hospital. He was admitted for 8 days. We were told that he had two separate infections. One infection was a septic infection, which explained the 104 fever, and I just found out yesterday that the rash around his genitals was herpes 2. I don’t understand how he got herpes. My dad is already immune-compromised because he takes Cyclosporine, which is an anti-rejection medicine for the kidney transplant that he got 19 years ago. I'm not a doctor; just a concerned son. I read the hospital records, and I read that the surgeon gave my dad 1 gram 4 Ancef 30 minutes before the operation. My question to anyone who has more knowledge than me on this matter. How did my dad contract Herpes 2? Being that my dad is taking Cyclosporine " Immune-Suppressant " Shouldn't he been given an anti-biotic before, and after the procedure as well as the 1 gram of injectable 4 Ancef given to him 30 minutes before the operation? I understand that getting an infection from an operation is a risk everyone faces, but being that he's immune compromised already. Shouldn't he've been on an anti-biotic/anti-viral/anti-bacterial med before, and after the operation as well?? Also I took him back to the urologist yesterday for a follow-up visit, and I didn't know this until yesterday his testicle sack is bigger now than before the operation. The urologist told me that it's swelling, and it should subside with time. He also told me that it's possible that it won't subside as well, because of the infection that my father got. Is there anyone out there that can clarify this situation for me? Why??