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Question for Moderator

Dear Herpes Community,

My girlfriend has thigh herpes, type 2, diagnosed by blood and PCR.  She got it through dry humping with her past boyfriend.  He has HSV2, she didn't at the time (double checked with blood testing).  After a night of dry humping (no genital to genital contact) she contracted the virus, around a week later, on the thigh area. They never did have sex, only dry humping whilst wearing her knickers.  She's never had any vaginal issues connected to the herpes.  I see no reason not to believe her.  She's been honest about everything else.  Her doctor indicated that this can happen (thigh herpes) and that avoiding sex during an outbreak is the only precaution necessary because the ano-gential area is not affected in her specific case.

How often does she shed from the thigh with no lesion present?  

Thanks in advance.  
10 Responses
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101028 tn?1419603004
glad you two are talking about this :)  

I tell folks all the time that herpes can't hold a candle to so many things out there.  I can control my herpes for the most part with a pill or two a day, can't control gambling issues, money management issues, ex spouses and kids that easy.  I've actually had more men decide not to pursue a relationship with me because of my big dogs than I've had turn me down because of my herpes in the last 20+ years.    You can educate yourself about herpes, you can't make a big dog lover out of someone who isn't....lol.  



Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Thanks, Grace.  Yeah, the odds are in my favour.  And, even if we did have unprotected sex on those 10 potential days of shedding, chances are I might not even contract it then. I've read not all exposures lead to transmission. This is great news.  I've always viewed HSV2 as cold sores down south, nothing more or less.  It's just not a deal breaker for me.  I've gone out with people with problems WAY worse than this.  I'd take HSV2 solely genital any day compared to some of the rather odd psychological stuff out there. Actually I hate even comparing cold sores to bipolar disorders (for example.  They are not in the same league.  I'm going into this with a clear head and a realisation that I might, indeed, contract this.  The odds are with me but don't want to fool myself either.  My g/f didn't have sex with this guy.  It was a bit of a "one off" without going all the way kind of thing.  I've shared with her the info and she feels better knowing the risk is there, albeit fairly remote.  
Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
odds will always be that you won't contract hsv2 from your partner.

I know personally I'd rather take the assumption that my partner really had hsv2 genitally and take precautions than to think no symptoms, no worries and then risk ending up with hsv2 down the road.

I forgot to ask - had your gf ever had sex with this partner or wasn't it that sort of relationship?

grace
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Appreciate your efforts, Grace.  The take home message (from both articles) is the following:

-Non genital lesions (on the initial outbreak) almost always occur with genital ones. Recurrences, though, can occur in the boxer short region solely.
-When non genital lesions (on the initial oubreak) occur with genital ones, they are most likely to occur in the case of HSV 1 and HSV 2 primary and very rarely with non primary HSV (that is, HSV 1 has already been acquired)
-When non-genital lesions are present (in the absence of genital lesions) the genital region will shed, on average, 7% of the time.

Now, this is where it gets difficult to understand.   The articles do not quantify the amount of genital shedding occurring in between non-genital lesions.  This might, in fact, mean that even less occurs. Let me explain:

If genital shedding takes place 7% of the time in the presence of non-genital lesions (as indicated in the research study), this is not a bad situation altogether in terms of transmission, markedly better than if someone has solely genital lesions.  

Let's do an example:  A person has only buttock recurrences (no concurrent genital lesions), 10 outbreaks per year, let's say--which is a high estimate as the article indicates that non genital lesions occur less frequently than genital ones, but they do take longer to heal.  Only 7% of this entire outbreak time will s/he shed genitally.  Let's say each buttock outbreak is 7 days in duration.  That's 70 days of outbreak time per year, only 5 (7%) of those days will s/he shed genitally.  I assume genital shedding without lesions would be even less, perhaps on scale with HSV1 shedding, in fact.  Let's say that it's the same amount of shedding without lesions as with lesions.  This totals around 10 days per year of genital shedding with or without lesions.  Those odds are pretty darn good.  

Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7872339 is the other article I was looking for.
grace
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101028 tn?1419603004
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/17012458

when you are infected with the virus, it enters into the skin and then moves into the lumbarsacral ganglia to set up long term "housekeeping".  When it reactivates, it can go down any of those ganglia below the waist to cause symptoms.  Herpes infection on the thigh, should be treated like buttocks and genital herpes.

I still encourage you  to post to Terri too.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Thanks for the heads up on that issue.  I'm a science guy and often read research studies on a variety of medical issues.  Would you be willing to fwd me the links of the research studies around this issue?  Thanks a million.  
Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
that particular post was one that caused a heck of a lot of off the board discussion between a bunch of us because the advice given was disagreed with based on several well done studies.   I recommend that you pay to post your question to Terri Warren , the herpes expert here on medhelp for her opinion.

grace
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Grace, thank you for taking the time to respond and with such speed! I respect your opinion as a moderator of this board, but am finding some degree of differences of opinion on this subject.  Today I found this old posting on a very similar issue as my g/f (although type 2) and the doctor indicated that the whole nerve area would not be affected in such a circumstance.
http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/HSV2-ON-THIGH/show/603282

His advice was that the site inoculated is where the blisters first appear and if this happens on the leg (or elsewhere) then the virus will not travel throughout the entire area below the waist.  Without causing any problems for you, I'd really like to know how this would happen considering the genitals were not affected originally.   Want the most accurate information possible.  The handbook link does not cover this issue specifically; it focuses on recurrent herpes on the leg/buttocks, etc., where the site of inoculation was the genitals.  This, I understand.  And, yes, I have been tested, twice, in fact.  Both times negative. Thanks.  
Helpful - 0
101028 tn?1419603004
when she was infected with the virus, it infected the nerves that supply below the waist.  she should be taking the same precautions as someone who gets lesions on the actual genital area.

the herpes handbook at www.westoverheights.com has terrific info for the both of you.

have you ever been tested?

grace
Helpful - 0
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