Thanks, I appreciate your help.
I guess I need to relax and stop worrying about this.
tearing of the delicate genital skin is common with fungal infections actually. this is more likely to be due to vaginitis than hsv1 genitally.
I had itching and redness along with very sensitive vaginal skin and what looked like tears about 5 years ago. I thought it could be herpes. I had a culture done(I believe it was within a few days of the symptoms) and I was told it was negative for herpes.
I was treated with Diflucan and an antifungal cream for a yeast infection and all of the symptoms went away after less than a week.
In the last month, I found out that I have antibodies to HSV-1, despite never having a cold sore that I can remember (negative for HSV-2) I have been on antibiotics for an ear infection. I had a bit of the cottage cheese like discharge and then I had similar similar symptoms to those I experienced 5 years ago-the redness, and irritation of the skin with what looked like a small tear on the vaginal skin where it folds. I self treated with Monistat 7, and almost all of the symptoms have gone away. I also went to the doctor and she looked at me and found no lesions or symptoms, either on the inside or outside. However, after bathing the other night, I noticed another small tear on the opposite side from where the first tear appeared. It appears when I stretch the skin to look at it.
I have been taking 500mg Valtrex every day since I found out about the HSV-1. I started it 4 days before I noticed the yeast infection symptoms.
I guess I need to soothe my mind that this isn't, in fact, a genital HSV-1 breakout. I read so much that tears are very often a symptom. I am guessing that the vaginal skin is just sensitive because of all the creams I have been putting on it and pulling it to examine myself.
Now that I know I do have HSV-1, but I am not sure where, I am extremely paranoid that every bump is a herpes breakout. Does this sound at all like a recurrent HSV-1 episode?
no, shedding of the virus doesn't significantly change over time except for after the first year or so of being infected.
I apologize for all of the questions, just trying to figure out some things. Even though I had never been tested for it before, I am pretty sure that I have had oral HSV-1 for a long time. I have never had a symptom or breakout that I can recall (at least, as far back as I can remember).
I know that there is a risk of asymptomatic shedding. I was just wondering if that means that asymptomatic shedding would potentially be reduced due to the length of time that the virus has been in the body.
Or if I should now worry about future breakouts, now that I know my status for sure. I am overanalyzing this, I think. This will be my last post on the subject.
well there is no such thing as just being exposed to herpes - you either have it or you don't.
some labs don't report with numeric results. Some don't report with them if they are negative. some labs don't do a lot of herpes testing so they run the herpeselect immunoblot which doesn't return with numeric results.
clear as mud?
Thanks for your help. I requested the lab printout. I am pretty sure they did do the HSV-1 test, as it is listed on my bill-Herpes Simplex Type 1 (CPT code 86695) and Herpes Simplex Type 2 (CPT code 85596), so I will just have to wait and see what the lab printout says. It seems as though the "exposure" comment is standard on the Quest diagnostics tests results printout, and it really doesn't say anything.
I have never actually had any symptoms or cold sores, but I want to be sure of my status for both. (I am under 30)
Hey
My statement above is suppose to read: "If your are thinking about false NEGATIVES, those are rare to happen...."
Maybe they (your medical providers) take HSV-1 as considering not an STD. So they said you are STD free.
Yes, you have the right to know those numbers.
Good luck.
the numbers are meaningless if you are negative. Just call back and make sure that you were tested for hsv1 and hsv2 both. Some labs/clinics don't test for hsv1 specifically because of the wrong assumption that "everyone has it". If you are under 30 then 1 out of every 3 people you know has it. Still very common but not near "everyone". If you are over 30 it's closer to 1 out of 2. By the time you hit the aarp years, it's 80% and higher rates of infection with it. Since 30% of all newly acquired genital herpes infections are caused by hsv1, knowing your status for it is just as important as knowing your hsv2 status.
grace
That's what I figured. I was annoyed that she wouldn't read me the numbers. I'm just not sure why they would tell me my STD panel was negative if I did, in fact, test positive for HSV-1.
If indeed your doctor said, that you have, been ".... exposed to HSV-1 at some point and everyone is born with it." Then you should consider talking to another doctor about test results, because you are correct in that that was a false statement.
You STD pannel listed negative because you tested negative for HSV-2 and the other STDs. If your are thinking about false positives, those are rare to happen (unless you haven't meet window periods for herpes).