If the male tested + for hsv2 on a blood test and the female is negative for hsv2 on the blood test and the male is performing oral sex regularly on the female but not vice versa - the female is not likely to be at risk for hsv2 from the male. Most folks who have hsv2 don't have it orally to begin with. Of those who do - if they are otherwise immunocompetent - they only shed the virus on average about 1% of days which means 1 out of every 100 days. The chances of performing oral sex on those 3 days out of the year are pretty darn slim.
If you are a male with hsv2 who is involved with a hsv2 negative female - certainly look into daily suppressive therapy to help lower her risk if the relationship progresses to genital sex together.
grace
yes the woman is receiving so that the man is using his mouth on her. He has HSV2 asympyomatically. Could he shed virus in his saliva and infect her. sorry for the confusion.
You lost me. If a women[sic] is *receiving* oral sex, the other person is using their mouth on her. That means HSV-1 is coming into play here, not -2. Can you clarify your question?