On 6/2/09, I had a bad rash in my butt crack from wiping due to loose stools. I could not stop going to the bathroom and my butt became super raw. I have a tub of Aquaphor on my dresser that I use, mostly in the winter, for dry skin as well as chapstick at night before bed. I use my finger and put it on my lips. My husband also does this on occasion, but we both rarely use it. We both have had cold sores in the past, he has been clear for 3-4 years and I haven't had one for 9 years. We have never used the Aquaphor when having a cold sore. I took a Qtip and put some of the Aquaphor on the rash, not thinking that I also use this product as chapstick and probably shouldn't have done that. I used it one time and the rash lasted for about 3 weeks before going away completely. I attributed it's long lasting to the fact that I had loose stools for several days in a row and was constantly wiping. On 6/19/09 it was still irritated so I put some cream on it and felt a small bump. I went to my gynecologist that day and had a culture done for herpes, which came back negative. I realize though that it could be a false negative due to being over 2 weeks old. Now I'm having vaginal problems (slight irritation, nothing noticeable) and fear I may have spread something from my back to my front during intercourse. I'm going to my doctor tomorrow. My question is, is it possible that even though neither of us had a cold sore when using the ointment, that I could have spread the virus from the jar to my rash? Thank you.