Hello. So, I'm confused. Why does one feel obligated to disclose his/her GHSV1 infection when those with oral HSV1 don't ? Doesn't oral HSV1 shed more than GHSV1? It makes sense to start a relationship with honesty; I get that. But, why aren't those with oral HSV1 disclosing their condition when it can certainly lead to a possible std for their partner? It jus seems completely unfair......