Human Papillomavirus (HPV) Community
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Avatar universal

An HPV concern

Hello. My wife has had an abnormal PAP smear which indicated she may have HPV. Since it is unclear whether she has precancerous changes or a different type of inflammation, she has had colposcopy and is now waiting for the results. Last year her cytology result was negative.

I am extremely worried now because I think I could have transmitted HPV to her. A few years ago I had a few protected vaginal intercourses with CSWs - the last one around 2010. At the same time I had sex with my wife - always with a condom on. I also gave her oral sex. My question is: is it possible that I passed HPV to her a few years ago and it has only given symptoms now? Alternatively, is it possible that I have only recently transmitted HPV to her despite having sex regularly for many years?

To make matters worse, I still have occasional encounters with CSWs, but I do not have vaginal sex any more - I only get oral sex - always with a condom, unprotected handjobs or unprotected mammary sex. Are these sexual activities of any significance with regard to HPV? I have read on this forum that protected oral sex and elements of erotic massage (handjobs or stimulation wth breasts) pose a very small risk of HPV transmission.

I would appreciate any comments and advice.
6 Responses
Avatar universal
Nobody's going to drop a line? :-(
Avatar universal
Condoms Have Limitations.When condoms are used, they are unable to cover the base of the penis,
they are unable to cover the bottom of the penis,even when the condom is rolled down as far as possible. Especially the bottom is subject to friction during sexual intercourse. Furthermore, this area is fragile, creating opportunities for microscopic abrasions. Which is similar and direct to woman’s http://www.donshield.com/#!/BLOG/551ca8cf3d05236404824e0c
Avatar universal
I do realize condoms have limitations.Therefore, I understand I could have caught HPV five or more years ago, but how come my wife's PAP has become abnormal after such a long time?
Avatar universal
Because her immune system may have weakened for some reason now. Or she smokes cigs and this caused it to be diagnosed now. The reasons are just not that precise as you want them to be,
Avatar universal
OK, her immune system may have weakened for some reason. She does smoke cigarettes. But if I gave her the virus 5 years ago and her immune system overcame it back then, how come the virus has come back again? Has it been there all this time, waiting for an opportunity to attack? Or rather, have I reinfected her recently? But then another question arises: how could I have reinfected her if i overcame the virus myself 5 years ago? It's all pretty confusing...
Avatar universal
There is no ping pong effect. You cannot re-infect someone with the same strains.  And the virus never leaves the body. Tiny amounts cling to DNA forever, as most doctors believe. All you did was make it dormant. That is what 90% of all infected do. But it isn't always forever dormant. People can go from being not infectious to infectious again for unknown reasons. It isn't common but it happens.

There is a strong link to cig smoking and HPV re-occurrences. The link to a weakened immune system is debated among doctors. Pregnant women have weak immune systems and can get a positive result after years of negative results.
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