Hi, My husband and I have been together for the last 5 years. A few years ago I contracted Mononucleosis and coincidentally my pap came back as questionable cells with HPV +. Despite showing no s/s and have previously receiving the 3 step vaccination, I followed through with all the recommended follow up paps and a cervical biopsy to further test the etiology of the cells. At which time I notified my now husband of the matter and life went on. Now 3 years later, I have noticed what I assume are warts over his pubis, however, they are strictly in his hair line proximal to his penis. There are no other growths anywhere else. They are flesh colored and barely raised maybe 5 total of varying shape and size. My husband stated that he has had them for about 6 or 7 year and he always thought they were moles.
I guess my main question is
1.Is it possible for me to not have/currently show symptoms of the warts because I received the gardasil vaccination and he had not?
2. Should I avoid sexual contact while the warts are present- for all I know they may have been there for the last 5 years. They are hardly noticeable.
3. We are planning a pregnancy in the near future, can HPV be transmittable through vaginal delivery to a baby. And is it only transmittable if I am actively + for HPV.
Thanks so much, despite being a RN, BSN it is still very confusing.