We are a married couple in late 30s with kids. Wife was tested positive for high risk hpv with normal pap recently. Same test 3 years back was negative with normal pap. At this point we are assuming that we both have hpv since we engage in vaginal and oral sex.
What we don't understand is how we caught this - since neither of us had sex with anyone else except each other in our entire lives. We absolutely trust each other on this - as unrealistic this may sound.
1. Could we have caught it from using public restrooms where one of slipped in taking appropriate protective care while in a hurry? All literature says that this does not spread through fomites, so very confused.
2. Could public swimming pools be a reason? Virus from infected persons leaked into the pool and swam around to infect one of us? This virus supposedly survives in moist conditions, so it would survive in water of the pool too, right?
3. Did we make medical history by being the first documented people to catch this asexually?
4. The previous test was negative. Does this mean this infection was contacted since after that test?
5. We are also assuming that we both have oral hpv infection also spread through oral sex with each other. We are very scared of passing this to our children - by sharing a glass, or sharing lip balm, giving them a bath or drying them with towels afterwards, or millions of little things that we may be doing innocuously that could expose them to this risk.
The primary reason we are so concerned about kids is that we are starting to believe that from our own example hpv spreads asexually and hence will spread to our kids.
6. Final thought - are there any published data about false positive rates of cervical hpv tests? We have not been told by our doctor what kind of test they did, what hpv type was tested for or what are the false positive rates for the test wife was administered. Are we wrong in expecting the doctor to provide this information?
Thanks