Hi everyone, and thank you in advance for your time. Despite three Gardasil shots, I was diagnosed 3 years ago with a high-risk strain of HPV. I had two procedures done two weeks apart by my gyno almost a year ago and everything is supposedly in the clear cancer-wise. What I'm curious about is something she said:
She told me that if I have one strain of HPV, that I'm essentially immune to any others. Now, the symptoms for my particular strain include a small breakout of white painless warts/ulcers on the inside of my vagina that disappear within a week... but recently I found some that aren't white and ARE painful (more like canker sores) underneath the hood. One or the other has happened maybe 3-4 times within the past 3 years. Usually lasts about a week then recedes, leaving no trace of anything. I have noticed, however, that when they DO tend to pop up, it's usually shortly after I've been sexually active, which raises some concerns for me. My questions are:
1). Is my doctor correct in reassuring me that having one strain, I'm immune to others?
2). After the contraction, do HPV symptoms (warts) show up *completely* randomly or can the timing sometimes depend on when you've had sex? Like, can having sex after a period of abstinence irritate or rile the virus symptoms back up?
3). If not, do gynecologists check for herpes when you get your annual checkup or do you have to ask for it specifically? I really don't think I've been with anyone who has that, but if my HPV concerns don't add up, I'd like to know what caused these bumps this past week as they look slightly different than the ones I saw 3 years and are actually painful/itchy this time.
4). Or can one HPV strain cause two different kinds of symptoms/warts?
This is all so confusing and frustrating to me, I would appreciate any and all feedback! Have a great day :)