Just looking for an opinion. I had my eye doctor fax copies of the exam from last winter when I went in for eye pain to the neuro that I will be seeing next month. In the copy of the letter to my PCP it states "Barring anything that might show up with imaging, my top suspects for her symptoms are migraine variant or idopathic neuralgia." Of course they have to throw in migraine because that's the old stand by for someone with chronic headaches (though they are not migraines...), but the "barring anything that might show up on imaging" and "neuralgia" (I'm choosing to ignore the idiopathic part) could be hopefull arguements for the neuro to do another MRI, couldn't they? And I'm wondering why after receiving this that the PCP didn't order imaging?
Just wondering if anyone has an interpretation or recommendation if/when the neurologist refers to this?
Be well,
Heather