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evoked potentials

If the VEP is abnormal due to past retrabulbar neuritis, does that mean that I have a lesion on my optic nerve, and would that count as one lesion? Thanks
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Avatar universal
I, too, am curious about this. I was diagnosed with ON a few weeks ago. My VEP results were 108,115 and 121 in the affected eye. The other other peaked at 100 all three times . The MRI showed a "slight inflammation" of the optic nerve. It wasn't referred to as a lesion. I know this doesn't answer your question but I though I would respond.
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429700 tn?1308007823
Yes, it is considered as one attack on the McDonald's criteria.  If you have two attacks, then you could be considered as having MS.  See the article below:

http://www.msfocus.org/article-details.aspx?articleID=380

You probably already know this, but optic neuritis does increase your chances for MS.  Often times it is the first sign of MS.  

See below a good article on this:

http://www.msfocus.org/article-details.aspx?articleID=380

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Avatar universal
Thanks, this is my second attack now :(
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429700 tn?1308007823
Do you have any other clinical signs like balance problems, weakness, etc.?  
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Avatar universal
have balance issues, weakness in one arm. Tingling in legs, hands shake, twitches. Neurologist said one pupil is dilated in dimmed light, Hoffmann sign in both hands and babinski in both feet.
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