So I was tested positive for chlamydia. I must have contracted it at least a year ago after having unprotected vaginal sex, but I never had symptoms. Without knowing I have an std, I've been fooling around without protection with this guy. We haven't had penetrative sex but we've definitely touched naked penis (tip) to vagina a few times... That's a long story but do you think if he's gotten the infection, that he may show symptoms since they're more common to have in men? Or, since the bacteria didn't cause symptoms in me, does that mean he wouldn't have symptoms either?
Thanks