On 01-Nov-2008, I received oral sex (only) from a woman (one time). That was the only other sexual activity I have had with any partner in at least six months, and have otherwise had no STD's in my past. A week after that event, I was noticing some slight burning during urination, and a day later, some swelling and discomfort in my left testicle. Then, to horrify me more ;-o, I saw brown material in my ejaculate the next morning. I promptly went to my doctor for help, and he felt it was either chlamydia or gonorrhea, so he started me on antibiotics (Levaquin) and Naxproxen for swelling. I am awaiting the results of the tests. I seem to be getting better, which is good, but my main question is this:
The day _before_ I went to the doctor (the day before I noticed the brown material in the ejaculate), my wife and I kissed a few times, then she performed oral sex on me for approximately five minutes. I did NOT ejaculate into her mouth. There was no other sexual contact between us, and that was the only sexual event between us in recent past. If the tests come back with either of the two options as positive, what are the chances that I have given her that STD?
I take full responsibility for my actions, and am willing to fess up to this if needed so that she can get checked, but obviously, this would negatively affect my marriage and I would much rather keep this quiet, handle it and then repent and not do it again. ;-)
I realize estimates are rough -- I'm just looking for an idea of whether there is pretty strong chance she's got it, or whether the chances are slim.
Thank you for this forum!!