Hi,
I recently received oral sex from a new-time partner (in fact, this was my first sexual encounter of any kind). He did not have any sores on his mouth. Within a couple hours (5 hours tops) I started feeling some irritation around my clitoris. It was mild at first, but got worse over the next few days, so that I had what looked like a lot of tiny satellite lesions. I also had some burning and itching. There was no pain when I urinated. My labia also became very swollen.
I saw 3 different doctors concerning this, with 1 saying it was a very bad yeast infection, and the other 2 saying it had to be genital herpes. The doctor who said it was a yeast infection treated it as one, and my symptoms decreased dramatically after one dose of Diflucan and 3 days of Canesten cream. The first doctor I saw (who immediately said herpes) prescribed Valtrex, but this did not alleviate any of the symptoms. The reason I went to the other doctor was to get another prescription of Diflucan since not all the swelling had gone down. She immediately said it was herpes, but after hearing about my VERY short incubation time, she admitted that this could be some kind of secondary irritation.
I've done research on HSV-1 and from what I can see, if you have had HSV-1 orally in the past then you are less likely to develop genital HSV-1. I do have a history of cold sores and canker sores, so I know that I have oral HSV-1. What, then, are my chances of contracting genital HSV-1? Also, if he was completely asymptomatic, what are the chances that he may have given me herpes? And lastly, everything I've read concerning herpes involves an incubation period of 2-10 days. Mine, however, was within hours. Therefore my question is: what are the chances that this could actually be genital HSV-1?
Like I said, this was my first and only sexual encounter, and no vaginal intercourse occurred.