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Concerned about unprotected oral exposure

Hi Guys, almost a week ago I received unprotected oral from a massage girl. It only lasted about 10-15 minutes and I did ejaculate. I did not have any penetrative sex and did not perform oral on her. This took place in the States and the woman was from India. I don't want to sound naive, but I didn't realize there were so many potential stds one could contract from receptive oral. This was a one time occurrence, and I'm a little freaked out. From what I have read, I should not be concerned about hiv (which I accept), and the mouth is also not a conducive host for stds. Correct? So, the risk is likely pretty low that I contracted anything?

From other posts, I'm reading that gonorrhea and syphilis are not easy to spread via unprotected receptive oral, is that correct? It's been almost a week now and I do not have any burning sensation when I urinate or discharge or anything like that. I'm going to get tested tomorrow for gonorrhea and syphilis. I realize that it is too soon to be tested for syphilis, but I at least want a baseline to go by for peace of mind. I did not see any obvious sores on the woman's mouth that would indicate HSV1 or syphilis. I also asked her if she had any stds, and she said she was clean. Her vagina, which I touched, also looked clean and didn't smell. With regard to syphilis, my understanding is that it is very rare for someone to have syphilis orally, and that it is also pretty rare in women. Is this correct? Does someone have to have an open syphilis sore to spread syphilis? Thanks for answering my questions. I'm a little scared. I didn't realize these stds could be spread orally and I had unprotected sex with my SO the day after. She complained of a yeast infection the next day, which could be coincidental, but I'm freaking out. Three days after she complained about the yeast infection (which she treated with an over the counter cream), she's saying the yeast infection is going away. I've also noticed that there is a slight rash in the crease between my left testicle and my left leg, but I've had rashes there in the past from working out and sweating.

One last question, I hope and pray to God that I test negative. If I do test negative for gonorrhea and clamydia (they test them together) and syphilis at the one week mark, should I be reasonable confidence that I probably did not contract syphilis either based on the risk?

At what point should I retest for syphilis? Damn, I'm really nervous about this.
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Avatar universal
Hi Vance, I just wanted to let you know that the gonorrhea and chlamydia tests both came back negative. It wasn't quite 7 days from exposure when I took the tests (it was 6.5 days), but it is now day 9 and I don't have any symptoms. Should I assume that these negative results are conclusive at this point? Dr. Handsfield seems to suggest that even 2-3 days is enough time.

Lastly, if I wanted to retest for syphilis just to be sure, would 4 weeks be conclusive? Some data I have read seem to indicate that 4 weeks is pretty conclusive in the absence of symptoms, which usually appear after 21 days on average. Thanks for answering all of my questions!! :)
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Avatar universal
I hate to break it to you but gonorrhea is largely spread by oral sex these days -- it easily spreads to and from the throat.  Chlamydia is less likely unless she's a professional.  I really wouldn't worry about syphilis; it is a rare disease.  You'll need to wait at least a month for the syphilis test to be reliable anyway.
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Avatar universal
Hi Vance,

Sorry to bother you, but I wanted to ask you a quick question. It's been a week since the exposure and I do not have any symptoms (knock on wood). I did take the gonorrhea and clamydia test today (they combine them so I get both by default) and the syphilis test (I understand the syphilis test needs more time to be conclusive). If I currently do not have any symptoms (hopefully it will stay this way), should I have some level of confidence at the one week mark that my tests will be negative? I'll get the results in about 2 days.

Also, I read some info posted by Dr. Handsfield, where he lists the approximate number of days most people experience symptoms for the various stds that I could have been exposed to. Here is the reference post by him.

http://www.medhelp.org/posts/STDs/STD-Risk---Receiving-Unprotected-Oral-Sex/show/1200596

"Whether acquired orally or by vaginal/anal sex, the symptoms are the same:  discharge of abnormal pus or mucus from the penis, sometimes accompanied by painful urination (gonorrhea, NGU); or penile sores (herpes, syphilis).  Gonorrhea usually causes symptoms within 5 days, NGU 7-10 days, herpes 2-5 days, syphilis up to 3 weeks.  If you decide to be tested even without symptoms, a gonorrhea test can be done reliably any time now -- 2 days after exposure is plenty.  A syphilis blood test can be done at 6 weeks, and HIV testing could be done at the same time.  I recommend against testing for HSV unless there are symptoms that suggest herpes."
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Avatar universal
I am not certain how big it is in India.
I see no reason for testing but if it helps you then by all means test.
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Avatar universal
Vance, sorry to bother you, but two last questions. Is India considered a 3rd world country where syphilis and gonorrhea are more prevalent? The woman I was with spends time in the U.S. and in India - not sure if she does the same thing in India, but she said she does nursing work in India (not sure if I believe that).

Based on the info in this exposure, if you were in my shoes, would you feel the need to get tested for gonorrhea and syphilis? Just trying to put my mind at ease.

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Avatar universal
Cancker to spread it.
6 weeks is conclusive, it's that simple. Typical is 21 days but up to 90 days and by 6 weeks the antibodies have developed.

Syphilis is rare in general. Only about 20,000 cases in America yearly. Most in gay and/or bi sexual men.
In the mouth-rare, in women-rare.
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Avatar universal
Thanks for responding Vance. With syphilis, does one have to have an open chancre sore to spread syphilis, or can syphilis be spread if you have it, even with the absence of an open chancre?

If I tested again for syphilis at the 2 or 3 week mark, would that be reasonably conclusive? I've read some posts by Dr. Hook, suggesting that in a low risk situation such as this, one could test for syphilis at 1-2 weeks and be reasonably confident of the result, in the absence of other symptoms and taking everything in context. I know this exposure is likely low risk, but I'm still nervous. Why do you have to wait 6 weeks to test for syphilis, yet chancres typically show up in 10-21 days? I'm not understanding this.

Is syphilis fairly rare in women, even women who will have unprotected oral with obviously multiple sex partners?
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Avatar universal
You really answered most of your questions. You are correct by just about everything you wrote.

No chlamydia risk. Syphilis is very very low and no such thing as a "baseline", you either have it or you don't.

I would not worry but if you think you have to test.
Gonorrhea-1 week
Syphilis-6 weeks
Herpes-3 months
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