I'm a gay guy who had an encounter with another guy a couple of days ago. We had oral and protected anal sex (I was the top). He ejaculated first while we were having anal sex. Then I pulled out, took off the condom and he masturbated me to orgasm. He had some of his own semen on his hand, and some of it likely rubbed off onto my penis and possibly into my urethra.
Within a day I had the urge to urinate but without any pain. I did have a clear "discharge" of sorts this morning, but it occurred a few hours after I had masturbated. This is not unusual for me, as my penis will often leak a bit of leftover prostate fluid several hours after masturbation.
I asked him about STDs and he said he tested negative a few months ago. However I know some gay men are guilty of downplaying their sexual history because they don't want to be perceived as "sluts", even if they really are! Therefore I'm not entirely trusting of this guy's sexual past.
Hypothetically, if he did have an STD such as chlamydia or gonorrhea, could my symptoms be a result of infection? I'm not sure what level of risk I experienced with his semen-covered hand masturbating me, and the resulting likelihood of infection. Then again, I am also open to the possibility that these symptoms are caused by STD anxiety, and not a real infection. I had a much bigger STD scare earlier in the year, and everything turned out fine. I know full well how powerful the mind can be in manipulating one's physical reactions to stress.
I am a bit worried - not panicked, but enough so that I do plan on getting tested for chlamydia and gonorrhea. However, how long should I wait before testing? Two days post-exposure seems a little too soon.
Thanks!