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Avatar universal

Who gave it to who?

My boyfriend recently had STD tests done.  He came to me and said he had a discharge and we needed to go and get checked.  We went the very next day.  We both were treated as a precaution.  I was treated for bacteria vaginosis and he gonorrhea and chlamydia.  Mind you, I had no symptoms at all.  When the results came back, it was reported that I had gonorrhea.  I asked the nurse  could he have symptoms and not myself.  Her response was that it had been working on him longer meaning that he was probably the 1 to bring it to me.  He and I were separated for 3 months and I was with someone else, but broke it off in June.  If the one that I broke up with was the one that had given it to me, wouldn't I have had some type of symptoms to indicate something was wrong? I got back with my current boyfriend at the end of June and just last week he's had symptoms of an STD.  Does that mean he brought this std to me?  Please help if you can bcuz I can't be with him if he's gonna go out , cheat and not protect himself.  This is my life we're talking about.
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1318465 tn?1614894302
If we assume your current boyfriend has been faithful since the end of June;
then, yeah, "there is no 100% way to say who gave it to who BUT it is more then likely that you gave it to him based on the above. "

Please tell your ex also about you being positive, he needs to be tested and more importantly treated.
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Avatar universal
Just because someone has a STD does not mean the other person will get it. And it is harder for a male to get it from a female then a female to get it from a male.

Like I said 50% of women will not have symptoms, but 90% of men will have symptoms. So just because you don't have symptoms means nothing really. Him having symptoms means he recently was infected...probably within 5 to 10 days ago. And chances are that you had it from your ex and were in the 50% that does not get symptoms and about 2 weeks ago he finally got the infection.

There is no 100% way to say who gave it to who but it is more then likely that you gave it to him based on the above.
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Ok but it's been almost 2 months since I slept with my ex.  My current boyfriend is the one that came to me about his discharge.  We've been back together for almost 2 months and he started having this discharge last week, and I had none.  So how was I the one 2 give it to him?  Wouldn't it be safe to say that he geave it to me since it was the early part of June when I last slept with my ex?  You said it shows up within 2 wks, well it's been 2 months and I had no symptoms at all.  So please explain further if you can.  Thanks!
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Avatar universal
His symptoms probably mean that he recently got it...within the past week or 2. In men over 90% have symptoms within 2 weeks of the infection. In women only about 50% have symptoms.

So if you had unprotected sex with this other guy and have had unprotected sex with your bf since you have been back together then chances are you gave it to him.
Helpful - 0

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