If we assume your current boyfriend has been faithful since the end of June;
then, yeah, "there is no 100% way to say who gave it to who BUT it is more then likely that you gave it to him based on the above. "
Please tell your ex also about you being positive, he needs to be tested and more importantly treated.
Just because someone has a STD does not mean the other person will get it. And it is harder for a male to get it from a female then a female to get it from a male.
Like I said 50% of women will not have symptoms, but 90% of men will have symptoms. So just because you don't have symptoms means nothing really. Him having symptoms means he recently was infected...probably within 5 to 10 days ago. And chances are that you had it from your ex and were in the 50% that does not get symptoms and about 2 weeks ago he finally got the infection.
There is no 100% way to say who gave it to who but it is more then likely that you gave it to him based on the above.
Ok but it's been almost 2 months since I slept with my ex. My current boyfriend is the one that came to me about his discharge. We've been back together for almost 2 months and he started having this discharge last week, and I had none. So how was I the one 2 give it to him? Wouldn't it be safe to say that he geave it to me since it was the early part of June when I last slept with my ex? You said it shows up within 2 wks, well it's been 2 months and I had no symptoms at all. So please explain further if you can. Thanks!
His symptoms probably mean that he recently got it...within the past week or 2. In men over 90% have symptoms within 2 weeks of the infection. In women only about 50% have symptoms.
So if you had unprotected sex with this other guy and have had unprotected sex with your bf since you have been back together then chances are you gave it to him.