Recently I visited my ob/gyn for a first appt as I am 9 weeks pregnant. At the appt, the dr. did a series of standard tests. Two weeks later I received a phone call from the dr and he advised that I had tested positive for gonorrhea. This does not seem possible at all. I have been married to my husband for 2 years, and we have been together for 5 years total. I have never cheated on him, and have no reason to believe that he cheated on me. I have had absoultely no signs or symptoms of this disease. My husband has had no signs or symptoms either. He went to the dr. yesterday to take the test since I tested positive. The dr. did a physical exam and said that he does not see anything abnormal. We will find out in 7-10 days the result of my husbands test.
The only possibility that I can think of is that somehow this was contracted prior to us being together, however I have read that this is nearly impossible as it would be over 5 years. In this case, it MUST be a false positive. I have read that gonorrhea can be asymptomatic. What I don't understand is, if I DID contract it 5 years ago, and did not experience symptoms, would it just go away? How is it possible to say that it can my asymptomatic, but one would not test positive 5 years later?
This is not adding a serious stress to our relationship as I do not doubt my husband for a second. The possibility of cheating is just not there, and I obviously know my own behaviour. I can not accept that Dr's would rule out all other possibilities and simply say "someone cheated". It doesn't make sense.
Is it possible that this test was positive for gonorrhea but I could have a different disease?
Please provide any information.