Or, said differently, “B.E., or not B.E.?”
34 year old male.
I went for my annual EGD for GERD.
During follow up appointment, my GI said that he endoscopically saw BE on the scope, but that the biopsies of the area were controlling over the visual appearance.
I read his procedure notes and he plainly did diagnose just that. Impressions included reflux esophagitis and Barrett’s.
However, the biopsies were normal. Three tissue samples labeled “GE Junction, R/o Barrett’s” on the cassette.
The pathologist wrote “reflux esophagitis” and “negative for intestinal metaplasia on PAS/Alcian blue stain”.
So, I’m assuming my doctor is competent. He’s very thorough, has a very busy practice, is renown in the city I live in, and has been in practice for nearly 50 years.
Where does this leave me? Do I have Barrett’s or not? If no, what could he see that looked like Barrett’s enough to compel him to conclude BE as a diagnosis?