Don't be pulling up an posting to old threads.
Oh wow im reading this 3 years later and see how Teak had trouble understanding your question. Yea I have asked myself that also. I guess if you're recently infected your rna would be really high but yours is undetectable. I don't know why you need a follow up with antibody, im confused too
If I asked the question...then it is obvious that the explanation was not clear and presented well. Thank you for time wasted... will seek correct info elsewhere. Can't stand pompous people... *****!
Because it takes time for the antibodies to be detected by the tests. That was already explained to you above.
A ruptured condom during vaginal sex exposing me briefly prior to realizing. I have not had any exposures since. I am now 11 weeks post incident, and I had not place any more credence into this after the neg 8 week rapid test as a follow up as I thought this would be sufficient, after the RNA test. Until today when I decided to research a little more. So here where I am confused, if the RNA does not detect then why an antibody test also be invalid after that test, if a follow up test is required?
Because it isn't a stand alone test and has to be followed up with an antibody test. As to why you physician said what he did, is beyond me. What was your exposure?
Perhaps you can give me your opinion on this for me. If an PCR RNA test came back undetected @ 5 weeks after a possible exposure. Then why the suggestion for a follow up with antibody test, which mine came back neg at 8 weeks? And why would a Physician say the RNA @ 5weeks was sufficient?
An undetectable viral load does not mean a person is not infected. You didn't have a viral load test.
So it "IS" possible to have a low viral load (undetecable 5 week RNA) along with no antibodies (neg 8 week antibody) simutaniosly?
No your thinking is incorrect. There is a period of time when antigens cannot be detected and there is not enough antibodies for the test to detect. Reason for the 3 month conclusive test.