Hello all;
I will preface this by giving some information that, I think, is relevant to my question.
I am a 27 years old male, and I suffer from genital herpes which causes small outbreaks from time to time (otherwise healthy). The virus sometimes causes small wounds on the front side of the scrotum.
Yesterday, I had intercourse with a prostitute. Although I did use a condom, I just noticed this morning that I had some tiny herpes wounds, on the area that isn't covered by the condom. I hadn't noticed them yesterday, but I assume they might have been there already.
So, here's the question: Is there a possibility, IF that woman was HIV+, that she might have passed it to me, not through the glans (it was covered by the condom), but through the skin on my scrotum, which is infected with the herpes virus?
Yes I know, she might have been negative for all I know, and the only way to know for sure will be to test at 1 month and one more time after 3 months. I already know that. However, my question is in regards to the possibility of transmission in such a situation. Assuming she was positive, is there, then, a risk of transmission through the rash on my skin? Or is the risk so small as to be negligible?
Thanks!