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Indeterminate Test

I need some real healp here because I am freaking out!! On March 20th I had oral sex with a girl I know but not very well. I fingered her and I had a small cut on my finger, I licked her down there and I had a small sore on my gum. She gave me oral sex and then we were done. She had just divorced her husband who had been cheating on her but she said she got tested and was clean but I have no way of proving it.

I had the WB test done 28 days after the encounter and it came back indeterminate because the gp41 is equivicol.

gp160, absent
gp120, absent
p65, absent
p55, absent
gp41, equivicol
gp40, absent
p31, absent
p24, absent
p18, absent

Now I am freaking out and went and got another WB test today. Is this common to have a result like this 28 days after the event?
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Avatar universal
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Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
What is the first and/or second antibody that would show up on a positive test?
Helpful - 0
Avatar universal
Because you took the wrong test for one and you took it too earily for two and you didnt need to take a test to begin with. End of discussion.
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Avatar universal
No I don't think she does but I just don't understand why it would not show absent. The fact that it could be just starting scrares teh hell out of me and now I got to wait another 4-5 days for the next results.
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Avatar universal
One band is not indeterminate it's negative. I would imagine your doctor does not specialize in HIV.
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Avatar universal
My Dr ordered the tests. Why would it show an intermediate result and not asent?
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Avatar universal
You didn't have a risk, You don't have an indeterminate result you have a negative result.
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480448 tn?1426948538
Why are you being tested with the Western Blot first of all?  First, you never had a risk to begin with and didn't need testing.  Secondly, if you want to test, you get a standard antibody (elisa) test, WB's are used if a person gets a POS elisa.
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