Need facts

[mike199]

I have recently had sex with a prostitute, during this time the condom broke.
It was virginal intercourse. I went to a clinic within 36 hours of the incident. Since the prostitute was of high risk the doctor put me on PEP. 5 day later I have a burring felling when I urinate, suspect gonorrhea . If I assume she was HIV+ what are the chances I get it, considering I got gonorrhea.

[mike199]

Could someone please help? I have had my three month test for HIV it is the combo test and it returned negative. Value 0.16. The first four weeks of this three month period I was on PEP.

1. My question is would PEP effect the value after all this time?
2. my doctor has asked for a six month test. Is this normal?

I don’t think I can take another three months of waiting. Could some one please tell me what is going on?

[ECN44120]

Mike your risk for one episode of unprotected or condom broken vaginal sex is 1/2000, the gonorrea my increase it but not even near 1/500 probably around 1/1500, then PEP works in more than 90% od the cases, so your overall risk would be of 1 / 15000, so pretty slim, an saying that she had a 10% chance of being hiv positive (extremly high) then your risk would be around 1 / 150.000 so even lower, you should test at 6 weeks for a highly encouraging result, an then 3 months after the last dose of PEP to the conclusive result.

Good luck

[mike199]

Thanks

I presume I have to test every month after the first one at 6 weeks for 6 months to be 100% safe at 3 months I guess I am 98% safe.

Thanks to all of you for your time.

[Brad_]

You have to test 3 months after PEP was finished to make sure it worked and to verify your status.

[mike199]

Could somebody please answer?

Thanks

[mike199]

Ok. If we take the base line to be the data of exposure to HIV when would you take the test if PEP is prescribed? If it is over 3 months from the date of exposure why?

Sorry for nagging but I need to get this clear.

[Teak]

No exactly what I said, 3 months after the last dose.

[mike199]

I know it’s not a cure; it’s basically a blocker, again question not answered.

When you say I have to test 3 months after my last dose, do you mean 4 months before I get the test done form the date of exposure, if so why? (1 month PEP)

[Teak]

PEP is not a cure all. If you have a concern, "TEST." If you took PEP, you'll need to test 3 months after the last dose of PEP.

[mike199]

Not quit sure if you’re agreeing or disagreeing, however it does not answer my question. Maybe I did not phrase it correctly.

What are the chances that the HIV virus connects to a T-CELL if no PEP is used, once the virus enters your body? With high and low Viral load.

And yes I will get tested at 6 week, however time is relative 5 days have gone by and it seems like a life time. I guess I have to wait 8  more lifetimes.

[DanishAdult]

I Know that look at your first answer. + PEP Can stop it yes there is 80-90% chance that PEP Can do that. I See you very anxity get your test and fall down... trust me you fine...go and get you 6-8 weeks test..

[mike199]

Surly this can not be true, once the virus enters you blood it must find a receptive host T-Cell, the attachment to this cell is not always possible. Plus PEP is used to block this from happening and reducing the Viral load, thus if we have less viral load in your blood then there is a less chance of the virus connecting with a T-Cell

[DanishAdult]

When the virus first is in your bloodway then there is no chance it can stopped again. + Do not worry... collect your negativ test at 6 Weeks.

[mike199]

Once more question. If the virus enters your blood, then what are the chances it successfully attaches itself to a cell and starts reproducing?

[mike199]

Yes I know the answer, however there might have been something I missed, and since the people in this forum seem knowledgeable, and have experience, then I guess I will stop on this subject at least.

And I have not done this kind of thing before and never will again.

[snippets69]

I think you know the answer to this already mike199...It's zero.

And to make you feel even better, I'm not doing this to make you feel better (if that makes sense)...These are the facts.  A single instance a condom break during penile/vaginal sex with someone who uses condoms regularly I wouldn't consider close to something that should rent space in your mind.  I'm NOT saying don't test, but the chances of you being positive are as likely as what we've already discussed...which is to say... Don't let this rent a single second's space in your head.  There's minimal concern here.

If you'd told me you were repeatedly having unprotected sex with prostitutes or having multiple instances of unprotected sex with an infected partner or sharing needles or some such it would be a different story.

[mike199]

You are seriously making me feel better, It feel good talking about it as I am seriously stressed.

Now another one. What are the chances my family getting it just by living with them I mean sharing food utensils, sharing bathroom etc. This is my biggest fear. If I was stupid that’s OK but if I even have a chance of passing on to my family then that’s a big problem.

[snippets69]

also, I'm assuming you pulled out immediatly or shortly (within a minute) of the condom breaking which makes it even less likely..

Which means you shouldn't be concerned.  If you know mathematics/statistics you should be more worried about getting in some sort of fatal accident today.

[snippets69]

1/2000 comes from the HIV specialist Dr's here at medhelp, as well as many other reputable sites including the US Government (the link is in my other Windows profile - I'm not going to look it up now...just sift through the Dr's forums here)

The 1 in 20,000 was a guestimate that came from 1/2000 chance of catching HIV if the woman had it (at MOST 3% chance in the "high" risk population she's part of..Though for her it's likely much less since she appears to use condoms)

that's .03(.0005)=.000015

[mike199]

Thanks again, but reading medical journals actually puts, contracting HIV form 1/500 to 1/2000 depending on the sexual act performed (unprotected). I am using worse case scenarios. Also that HIV transmission is 5 times more effective when one other person has another STD.

So please tell me how you got the 1/20000, which sounds good to me, but considering I work in a mathematical field I need it justified.

[snippets69]

Just in cases you're not sure what I'm trying to say... It means don't fret over it. Go and test at 6 weeks and collect your negative.

[snippets69]

If she had HIV it's 1/2000, not 1/500.  IF she had HIV and gonorrhea (which I highly doubt since she uses condoms regularly) it would increase this risk somewhat, but it's impossible to tell how much.  The 1/2000 figure is a theoretical average that takes into account having other STD's/open sores etc...

I know you're not going to believe me, but your chances of getting HIV are extremely slim...Somewhere in the order of 1 in 20,000 at most.

[mike199]

Thnaks for your prompt reply. I am assuming she is HIV+ for a worse case scenario (other condoms breake as well), and gonorrhea has the smallest incubation period 5-7 days. I have never had such a feeling, and the days are about correct. I have done my maths and this is what I think.

Getting HIV=1/500   (high risk)= 0,2%
Rate of transmission with other STD 0,2%*5=1%
PEP success =80% thus 20% falue

So getting HIV =1% *  20% =0,2%   (getting HIV * PEP falure)

Does this seem sound?

[snippets69]

I don't think gonorrhea symptoms come on that early.

If she DID have gonorrhea (which you really don't know), it COULD make her more  infectious, but HIV is still not an easy disease to transmit.

If she used a condom with you, she probably uses them with everyone...Which means she most likely doesn't have HIV.

Get an antibody test at 6 weeks and collect your negative.