Hi,
I guess it's happening to me again. I am a 46 year old gay man.
20 months ago, I had an HIV scare. I got drunk at a gay club with a free bar, could not remember exactly what happened, but 5 days later I knew I had contracted gonorrhea (there was discharge from my penis) and then I got other suspicious symptoms within 3-4 weeks: sweating, severe diarrhoea, total loss of appetite and weight loss. It took me many months and repeated testing to realise that this was all just a coincidence and I had not contracted HIV.
However, the while thing sparked major anxiety and depression in me, and I started to drink heavily. Thankfully, I got that under control and returned to being a very moderate social drinker.
4 nights ago, I met an old gay acquaintance while travelling (he is somewhat younger than me). We had mutual oral sex. Neither of us ejaculated in each others' mouths and I could not taste any pre-cum. There was no alcohol involved this time.
However, now, 4 days later, I woke-up today sweating and with a sore throat and symptoms of the cold. The sweating has continued all day today and has been quite profuse (though I have been wearing much heavier clothes than the temperatures require).
My friend and I did not discuss our HIV-status before we slept together. I could kick myself for not doing so, though people are not always certain or the information could be out-of-date. My last test was in November 2014, negative, and I fully accepted the result.
How, I feel I am back to square one again and I feel that I am experiencing early infection / ARS symptoms.
Is 4 days post-exposure always too early for same?
This time, I definitely know what happened and it was purely oral sex, without ejaculation from either of us, and I did not taste any pre-cum either. So, there was definitely no anal intercourse, so it is low risk? Right?
I cannot remember the last time I had a cold or stomach upset - I remember commenting upon that to others after Christmas.
Does this all just sound like another coincidence?