any cases of acquiring HIV via protected sex where no issues with the condom - is it even possible? Is there any case of the not tearing but simply not having enough latex protection and resulting in transmission?
I know it's easy for people to say condom = no risk but is that accurate or just generalised knowing there are some cases where proper condoms led to him?
Also older forums tend to deem oral a very small risk while some in more recent years I note say it's not possible to pass orally. Dr hook I read somewhere had changed his position on this recently eg there is now a slight risk.. Wasn't sure if this is true but if anyone could share link it's appreciated.