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Risk - 5 years later

Hello,

Lately I have been thinking about my risk of HIV. I have applied for life insurance and I am waiting for my results.
I live in Toronto. About 5 years back I had sex with a girl who had a few partners. The condom broke, and after that we stopped using condoms. We had sex, maybe 5 times in total, the relationship did not last. She had kids, I assumes (and maybe not correctly) that a person with kids would protect herself. I think she gave me chlamidia, I was treated a few months later.
Assuming that I live in Toronto where the HIV cases are low and given the circumstances, including the fact that she likely gave my and STD how would I classify this incident? Is this a low, moderate or high risk exposure?

I have no symptoms of HIV, never had the ARS. I am not sure when symptoms would be noticeable after 5 years.
I did keep in contact with this person, and she has not mentioned anything to me, about HIV or other STDs.

Thanks
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Avatar universal
If you had unprotected penetrative sex then it would be a high risk, the only thing that I can say is that you will have to wait for your results.  Symptoms of lack of mean nothing in realtion to HIV only the test result counts.

HIBV is harder to tranmit from female to male but of course not impossible.

Anybody can have HIV, young, old, gay, straight, kids, no kids.  NEVER assume anything.  

When you get your results, which I hoep will me negative may I suggest you ensure that for any furture sexual encounters you have you consistently and correctly use condoms.
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