hi - thanks for the response.
no, it was unprotected. so then the chance would be relatively high - even though it was female to male.
oral sex poses no risk? what about if a woman is on her period? excluding sores/cuts in the mouth of the man. any upped risk? what about vaginal sex while a woman is on her period?
i really appreciate the help. thank you.
I'm sorry, I just realized you didn't mention whether the sex was protected or unprotected. The above response assumes that these sex acts were NOT PROTECTED.
If every sex act was protected through the use of a condom, and no condom failures occured at any time during the vaginal and anal penetrative exposures, then there is NO RISK of infection. Various studies of serodiscordant couples have confirmed this.
-B
The good doctors in the expert forums state that the risk of acquiring HIV from female to male through unprotected vaginal sex is about 1 in 2000 exposures. But you are talking about more than one exposure where not only vaginal, but anal sex was a potential vehicle for infection (oral is not a risk). Unprotected anal sex is a much higher risk activity than unprotected vaginal sex.
While you don't mention how many exposures occured in that year, in the situation you describe, the risk of infection is potentially quite high. Testing would most definitely be warranted 3 months after the most recent exposure.
-B