I'm a 43-year old male who is not new to headaches. I can't remember when I first got them, because they were fairly uneventful and seemed triggered by driving longer distances, long time spent at the computer, or "just because." The ache/pain waxes and wanes over the course of the headache, which could last from minutes to hours. It's usually not at a constant level, nor does it usually pulsate or throb with any regular rhythm.
In June, a neurologist diagnosed migraines, which surprised me becuase I don't have the "typical" migraine symptoms people read about (except for the one-sidedness and that it's affected by head or body movement). I walked out of the neuro's office with a prescription for Topamax. The GP office had ordered the MRI with contrast, but the insurance company would only approve it without contrast. By this time, I was just desperate to have it done, and about a week later, I finally did. I drove the CD of the images to my neuro's office who called that afternoon and told me that the MRI was generally normal except for evidence of white matter changes that are consistent in someone with high BP (which I don't) or possibly someone with migraines.
Anyway, I stopped taking Topamax because I was tired of the side effects, although it did seem to help a bit in that I didn't have any really sustained headaches. For a couple of weeks, I was a pretty happy camper. I went back to the neurologist for a follow up about a week after the MRI, he did a shorter version of the neuro exam, and discussed either going back on the Topamax or trying another one (he mentioned Depakote) if the headaches became a problem and made a follow-up appointment for this coming Friday.
The headaches came back last week, so I started taking the Topamax again but don't think I'll stay on it.
My main questions are: 1. Does this really sound like migraine? 2. Is the MRI contrast/non-contrast issue a significant one in diagnosing primary tumors?
Mark